Rabu, 25 Februari 2009

ccna 1 module 11

1. Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?
show running-config
show startup-config
show interfaces
show ip route
show version
show memory

2. Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?
enable password classline console 0password ccna
enable secret ciscoenable password classline console 0password ccna
enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0enable password classline console 0password ccna
enable secret ciscoenable password 7 14141E0A1F17line console 0password 7 020507550A
enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0enable password 7 14141E0A1F17line console 0password 7 020507550A

3. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0 4
RouterB(config-if)# login

RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0 2
RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
RouterB(config-vty)# login

RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login

RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line aux 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login

RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line aux 0
RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
RouterB(config-vty)# login

4. efer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?
Gateway for the 192.168.1.0 network
Gateway for the 192.168.3.0 network
IP assigned to the serial port on Router A
IP assigned to the serial port on Router B

5. What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?
Router# name Fontana
Router# hostname Fontana
Router(config)# name Fontana
Router(config)# hostname Fontana

6. he serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2

7. Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch?
NA-SW1(config-if)# no shutdown
NA-SW1(config)# enable password password
NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address
NA-SW1(config-if)# description description

8. When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?
AUX
Ethernet
Console
Telnet
SSH

9. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?
Telnet
Console
AUX
SSH

10. In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?
after a system restart
as the commands are entered
when logging off the system
when the configuration is saved to the startup-configuration

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)
line configuration mode
user executive mode
global configuration mode
privileged executive mode
interface configuration mode
enable mode

12. Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)
hot keys
context-check
context-sensitive
structured check
command override
command syntax check

13. Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?
Ctrl-C
Ctrl-P
Ctrl-R
Ctrl-Shift-6
Ctrl-Z

14. Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?
UBAMA# configure terminal
UBAMA(config)# line vty 0 4
UBAMA(config)# line console 0
UBAMA(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1

15. On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?
Console Port

16. Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)
The host A is turned off.
The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is shutdown.
The LAN cable is disconnected from host B.
The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.
The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is in a different subnet than host B.
The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.

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ccna 1 module 10

1. Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)
connecting a PC to a router’s console port
connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
connecting two switches together at gigabit speeds
connecting a PC to a switch at Gigabit Ethernet speeds
connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet spee

2. Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?
AUX interface
Ethernet interface
serial interface
console interface

3. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)
greater distances per cable run
lower installation cost
limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
durable connections
greater bandwidth potential
easily terminated

4. A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?
STP
UTP
coaxial
single-mode fiber
multimode fiber

5. What does the term “attenuation” mean in data communication?
loss of signal strength as distance increases
time for a signal to reach its destination
leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
strengthening of a signal by a networking device

6. How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
30
256
2046
2048
4094
4096

7. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0

8. A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248

9. What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
cross-over
straight-through
rollover
patch cable


10. Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?
hub
switch
bridge
router
repeater

11. Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?
192.168.1.1
192.168.2.1
192.168.2.2
192.168.3.1
192.168.3.54

12. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?
both host A and B would be successful
host A would be successful, host B would fail
host B would be successful, host A would fail
both Host A and B would fail

13. Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco’s V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)
RJ 11
DB 60
Winchester 15 pin
DB 9
smart serial
RJ 45

14. Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?
2
3
4
5

15. What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)
direct configuration of the device
cable color code association
cable selection and configuration
use of cable testers to determine pinouts
the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port

16. Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)
They propagate broadcasts.
They enlarge collision domains.
They segment broadcast domains.
They interconnect different network technologies.
Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.
They maintain a common frame format between LAN and WAN interfaces.

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?
router
hub
switch
wireless access point

18. Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
1
3
4
5
7

19. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)
Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.
Five broadcast domains are present.
Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
Four broadcast domains are present.
Five networks are shown.
Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router.

20. To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?
crossover cable
straight through cable
rollover cable
V.35 cable

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.
Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
Segment 3 uses patch cabling.
Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.
Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.

22. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248


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ccna 1 module 9

1. In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?
Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.

2. Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
Network layer
Transport layer
Physical layer
Application layer
Session layer
Data link layer

3. Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)
the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame.
the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame.
the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization
the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame.
the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable.

4. What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)
addressing
error detection
frame delimiting
port identification
path determination
IP address resolution

5. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

6. What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)
recognizes streams of bits
identifies the network layer protocol.
makes the connection with the upper layers.
identifies the source and destination applications
insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment.
determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting

7. What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?
MAC sublayer
Physical layer
Logical Link Control sublayer
Network layer

8. Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?
A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the frame field type with the contents that frame field includes?
header field - preamble and stop frame
data field - network layer packet
data field - physical addressing
trailer field - FCS and SoF

10. Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)
Host A will change the destination IP to the IP of the nearest router and forward the packet.
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of its default gateway.
A result of 172.16.225.0 will be obtained.
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.
A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained.
A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.

11. Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?
Collisions can decrease network performance.
It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.

12. Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?
application
physical
transport
internet
data link
network access

13. What is the primary purpose of ARP?
translate URLs to IP addresses
resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices
convert internal private addresses to external public addresses

14. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
No collisions will occur on this link.
Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)
A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.

16. Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)
dynamically assigned
copied into RAM during system startup
layer 3 address
contains a 3 byte OUI
6 bytes long
32 bits long

17. Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)
reduction in cross-talk
minimizing of collisions
support for UTP cabling
division into broadcast domains
increase in the throughput of communications

18. What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)
coaxial thicknet
copper UTP
coaxial thinnet
optical fiber
shielded twisted pair

19. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
85
90
BA
A1
B3
1C

20. After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?
the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
those that began transmitting at the same time

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ccna 1 module 3

1. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?
HTML
HTTP
FTP
Telnet

2. What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)
applications
dialogs
requests
services
syntax

3. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.)
centralized administration
does not require specialized software
security is easier to enforce
lower cost implementation
provides a single point of failure

4. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?
temporarily holds resolved entries
used by the server to resolve names
sent by the client to during a query
passes authentication information between the server and client

5. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?
HTTP
SSH
FQDN
DNS
Telnet
SMTP

6. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
ARP
DNS
PPP
SMTP
POP
ICMP

7. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)
acts as both a client and server within the same communication.
requires centralized account administration.
hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files.
can be used in client-server networks.
requires a direct physical connection between devices.
centralized authentication is required.

8. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)
DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client
POP delivers email from the client to the server email server
SMTP supports file sharing
Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access

9. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)
MDA
IMAP
MTA
POP
SMTP
MUA

10. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?
not widely available
does not support encryption
consumes more network bandwidth
does not support authentication

11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.)
routes email to the MDA on other servers
receives email from the client’s MUA
receives email via the POP3 protocol
passes email to the MDA for final delivery
uses SMTP to route email between servers
delivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol

12. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.)
ASP
FTP
HTML
HTTP
HTTPS
IP

13. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.)
User accounts are centralized.
Security is difficult to enforce.
Specialized operating system software is required.
File permissions are controlled by a single computer.
A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server.

14. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?
physical
session
network
presentation
application
transport

15. Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?
80
1261
15533
3912
65520

16. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)
scalable
one way data flow
decentralized resources
centralized user accounts
resource sharing without a dedicated server

17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?
DHCP
DNS
SMB
SMTP
Telnet

18. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.)
use daemons
initiate data exchanges
are repositories of data
may upload data to servers
listen for requests from servers

19. What is the role of the OSI application layer?
provides segmentation of data
provides encryption and conversion of data
provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network
provides control of all the data flowing between the source and destination devices

20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?
ceases all connections to the service
denies multiple connections to a single daemon
suspends the current connection to allow the new connection
uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service

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ccna 1 module 2

1. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
Network
Transport
Physical
Data Link
Session

2. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
supports error detection
ensures ordered arrival of data
provides delivery to correct destination
identifies the devices on the local network
assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection

3. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
No address is added.
The logical address is added.
The physical address is added.
The process port number is added.

4. What device is considered an intermediary device?
file server
IP phone
laptop
printer
switch

5. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
physical
data link
network
transport

6. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)
determine pathways for data
initiate data communications
retime and retransmit data signals
originate the flow of data
manage data flows
final termination point for data flow

7. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
the destination device on the local media
the path to use to reach the destination host
the bits that will be transferred over the media
the source application or process creating the data

8. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?
physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical
presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Network A — WAN
Network B — WAN
Network C — LAN
Network B — MAN
Network C — WAN
Network A — LAN

10. What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)
allows modification of the original data before transmission
identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication
enables consistent network paths for communication
ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device
enables the reassembly of complete messages
tracks delay between end devices

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?
piping
PDU
streaming
multiplexing
encapsulation

12. What is a PDU?
corruption of a frame during transmission
data reassembled at the destination
retransmitted packets due to lost communication
a layer specific encapsulation

13. Refer to the exhibit. “Cell A” at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with “IP Phone 1″ at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device “Cell A?”
the destination device
an end device
an intermediate device
a media device

14. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
A, C, D
B, E, G, H
C, D, G, H, I, J
D, E, F, H, I, J
E, F, H, I, J

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the green area?
source
end
transfer
intermediary

16. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
The network is administered by a single organization.
The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.
Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP).

17. Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?
WAN
MAN
LAN
WLAN

18. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
path determination and packet switching
data representation, encoding, and control
reliability, flow control, and error detection
detailing the components that make up the physical link and how to access it
the division of segments into packets

19. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
manage data flows
originate data flow
retime and retransmit data signals
determine pathways for data

20. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
to identify devices on the local media
to identify the hops between source and destination
to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices

21. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
define the structure of layer specific PDU’s
dictate how to accomplish layer functions
outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
limit hardware compatibility
require layer dependent encapsulations
eliminate standardization among vendors

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Senin, 23 Februari 2009

ccna 4 final exam version 2 part 3

31. Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)
192.168.146.0/22
172.10.25.0/16
172.31.0.0/16
20.0.0.0/8
10.172.92.8/29

32. After configuring a dialup ISDN circuit, a network associate begins testing the dialup connection. When attempting to ping a host on the remote network, the local router does not attempt to dial the remote access server. Which of the following are possible errors in this configuration? (Choose three.)
PPP authentication is not properly configured.
No dialer map is configured.
The ISDN circuit connected to the remote access server is busy.
No interesting traffic is defined.
No route is determined to the remote network.
A wrong number is configured in the dial string.

33. Two routers are connected through a Frame Relay, point-to-point PVC. The remote router is from a vendor other than Cisco. Which interface command is required to configure the link between the Cisco router and the other router?
frame-relay pvc multipoint
frame-relay pvc point-to-point
encapsulation frame-relay cisco
encapsulation frame-relay ietf
frame-relay lmi-type ansi

34. Which circuit-switched WAN technology is often used to provide a backup for a leased line and additional capacity during peak usage times?
X.25
DSL
ISDN
cable modem

35. After the ISDN BRI interface is configured, which command can be used to verify that the router is communicating correctly with the ISDN switch?
show dialer
show isdn status
show interfaces bri0/0:1
show interfaces serial0/0.1

36. A system administrator needs to configure the regional office with ISDN for DDR connections to three remote sites. Each remote site requires different IP subnets, different encapsulations, and different authentication methods. The sites will not be connected at the same time. The company would like to accomplish this in the most cost effective manner. What method can the system administrator use to accomplish this task using the fewest B channels?

Install and configure a PRI.
Install and configure a BRI interface with separate SPIDs for each remote site.
Install and configure a BRI with multiple switch types in global configuration.
Install and configure a BRI using dialer profiles.
Install and configure a separate BRI for each remote site.

37. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?
Configure static NAT for all ten users.
Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.
Configure dynamic NAT with PAT.
Configure DHCP and static NAT.
What the administrator wants to do cannot be done.

38. Which of the following are characteristics of Frame Relay? (Choose two.)
circuit-switched
connection oriented
OSI Layer 3
packet-switched
reliable

39. Which of the following is the order for the three phases of establishing a PPP serial link with authentication?
authentication, link-establishment, network layer protocols
authentication, network layer protocols, link-establishment
network layer protocols, link-establishment, authentication
network layer protocols, authentication, link-establishment
link-establishment, authentication, network layer protocols
link-establishment, network layer protocols, authentication

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ccna 4 final exam version 2 part 2

17. Which protocol should be chosen to support WAN connectivity in a multi-vendor system and provide strong security through authentication?
NAT with DHCP
Frame Relay
HDLC with encryption
HDLC with CHAP
PPP with PAP
PPP with CHAP

18. Which of the following are valid steps for a basic ISDN BRI configuration? (Choose two.)
create subinterfaces
define the LMI type
set the SPIDs if required by the ISDN switch
set the interface DLCI
set the switch type
specify the encapsulation as either Cisco or IETF

19. A branch office reports excessive connect time charges for an ISDN circuit used to connect to the regional office. Upon investigation of this issue, it is discovered that when an ISDN connection is initiated to the regional office it remains connected for an excessive amount of time. Which of the following configuration changes could be made to DDR on the router to reduce these connect time charges?
use PPP multilink
lower idle timer setting
use CHAP authentication
change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles

20. A network administrator is having difficulty in establishing a serial link between a Cisco router and a router from another vendor. Both routers are configured for HDLC encapsulation. Which statements are true regarding this configuration? (Choose two.)
The Cisco HDLC frame uses a proprietary "Type" field that may not be compatible with equipment of other vendors.
HDLC requires a clock rate to be configured on the routers at both ends of the serial link.
PPP encapsulation is recommended for serial links between equipment from multiple vendors.
Usernames must be configured at both ends of the HDLC serial link.
The HDLC vendor type must be enabled on the Cisco router.
There is a mismatch in the HDLC authentication password configurations.

21. Given the partial router configuration in the graphic, why does the workstation with the IP address 192.168.1.153/28 fail to access the Internet? (Choose two.)
The NAT inside interfaces are not configured properly.
The NAT outside interface is not configured properly.
The router is not properly configured to use the access control list for NAT.
The NAT pool is not properly configured to use routable outside addresses.
The access control list does not include the IP address 192.168.1.153/28 to access the Internet.

22. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue will prevent IP traffic from crossing this link?
The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.
The usernames are misconfigured.
The clock rate must be 56000.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
The IP addresses must be on the same subnet.
Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.

23. What causes a DDR call to be placed?
dial string
DLCI
idle time out
interesting traffic
PVC

24. Which two layers of the OSI model are described by WAN standards?
Application Layer, Physical Layer
Data Link Layer, Physical Layer
Data Link Layer, Transport Layer
Physical Layer, Network Layer

25. A technician is testing RouterA in the graphic. What is the condition of the circuit?
The routers are configured for different encapsulations.
The clock rate is not properly configured on the routers.
The circuit from WAN provider has failed.
Authentication is not properly configured on the routers.
The circuit is functioning properly.

26. A network administrator must provide WAN connectivity between a central office and three remote sites: Orlando, Atlanta, and Phoenix. The Orlando and Atlanta remote offices receive sales orders and transmit shipping confirmations to the Central office consistently throughout the day. The Phoenix remote office consists of one salesperson traveling through the southwest territory. The salesperson occasionally needs to connect to the Central office for e-mail access. How should the network administrator connect the remote sites to the Central office? (Choose two.)
Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with Frame Relay connections.
Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with ISDN connections.
Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with POTS dial-up connections.
Connect to the Phoenix remote office with a Frame Relay connection.
Connect to the Phoenix remote office with a POTS dial-up connection.

27. When a Frame Relay switch detects an excessive buildup of frames in its queue, which of the following may occur? (Choose two.)
Frames with the DE bit set are dropped from the switch queue.
Frames with the FECN and BECN bits set are dropped from the switch queue.
Frames in excess of the CIR are not accepted by the switch.
The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link.
The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link.

28. A system administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two routers in a new installation. The administrator enters the debug ppp authentication command on the WHSE router. The graphic shows a part of the output received. From this output, what is the most likely cause of this connectivity issue?
There is not a route to the remote router.
The ISDN circuit on the remote router has failed.
The username/password was not properly configured on the WHSE router.
The remote router has a different authentication protocol configured.

29. What does the output of the show frame-relay map command shown below represent? (Choose two.)
Serial 0 (up): ip 172.30.151.4 dlci 122, dynamic, broadcast, status defined, active
172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the remote router.
172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the local serial interface.
DLCI 122 represents the interface of the remote router.
broadcast indicates that a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP v1 can send packets across this PVC.
dynamic indicates that a dynamic routing protocol is enabled for this connection.
active indicates that the ARP process is working.

30. What does the status inactive indicate in the output of the show frame-relay pvc command?
The DLCI is programmed in the switch but is not usable.
The DLCI was formerly programmed in the switch but is no longer there.
The DLCI is usable but has little activity.
The DLCI has been renamed for that PVC.

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ccna 4 final exam version 2 part 1

1. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
A modem terminates a digital local loop.
A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
A modem terminates an analog local loop.
A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
A router is commonly considered a DCE device.

2. What value in the address field of a Frame Relay header identifies the destination of the frame?
CIR
DE
DLCI
ISDN
FRAD
PVC

3. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue explains why the link is unable to establish a PPP session?
The IP addresses must be on different subnets.
The usernames are misconfigured.
The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.
The clock rate must be 56000.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.

4. The output of the show interfaces serial 0/0 command for a frame-relay connection indicates that the serial line is up but the line protocol is down. What are possible causes for this? (Choose two.)
There is an LMI-type mismatch between the Frame Relay switch and the router.
There is no clock present on the serial interface.
The interface is shut down.
RARP is not functioning on the router.
The cable is disconnected.

5. Which statements are correct about the point in the network where the responsibility of the service provider ends? (Choose three.)
The International point is on the customer side of the network terminating unit(NTU).
The United States point is at the interface of the customer-provided equipment and the local loop.
The responsibility for this point is controlled by IANA.
The point is called the demarcation point.
The point is typically located at the service provider's central office.
The point is located between the customer's local area networks.

6. While prototyping an internetwork in the corporate lab, a network administrator is testing a serial link between serial 0/0 interfaces on two routers. The labels on the serial cable ends have been damaged and are unreadable. What command can be issued to determine which router is connected to the DCE cable end?
show interfaces serial 0/0
show version
show controllers serial 0/0
show protocols serial 0/0
show status serial 0/0

7. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?
The DHCP server service is not enabled.
The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.
The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.
The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.
All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.

8. A technician enters the interface serial 0/0.1 multipoint command when configuring a router. What effect will the multipoint keyword have in this configuration? (Choose two.)
Split-horizon issues will need to be resolved for this network if RIP is the routing protocol.
A subinterface will be defined for each PVC.
All the participating interfaces of remote routers will be configured in the same subnet.
A single DLCI will be used to define all the PVCs to the remote routers.
An IP address will need to be configured on the main interface.

9. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static Frame Relay map be used? (Choose two.)
when the remote router is a non-Cisco router
when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP
when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier
when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled
when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used

10. Which router command would be used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address in the internetwork in the diagram?
RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay pvc 100 192.168.15.2
RouterA(config-if)#dialer-map ip 192.168.15.1 100 broadcast
RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 192.168.15.2 100 broadcast
RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 101 serial 0 broadcast
RouterA (config-if)#frame-relay dlci 101 192.168.15.1 broadcast
RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 inverse-arp broadcast

11. Which of the following ISDN protocols is responsible for call setup and call teardown?
ITU-T Q.921
ITU-T Q.931
ITU-T I.430
ITU-T I.431

12. What are two ways to resolve split-horizon issues in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
create a full-mesh topology
disable Inverse ARP
use point-to-point subinterfaces
use multipoint subinterfaces
remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command

13. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco 806 broadband router?
defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
defines which addresses are allowed into the router
defines which addresses can be translated
defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool

14. A system administrator is unable to ping the Serial0/0 interface of RouterB from RouterA. During the troubleshooting process, the following facts are established:
- IP addressing and subnet masks are correct.
- RouterA is a Cisco router and RouterB is a router from another vendor.
- RouterA is configured with the default encapsulation.
- The serial interfaces on both routers are up.
- The protocol is down on the serial interfaces of both routers.

What should the administrator do to solve the problem?
Add a clock rate on RouterA.
Enable the serial interface on RouterB.
Change the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
Connect the serial cable to the correct interface on RouterB.
Use the correct serial cable to attach the CSU/DSU to RouterB.

15. An ISDN circuit from a branch office is remaining connected to the regional office. A network administrator determines a user has initiated a continuous ping from a desktop computer to the regional office. Which configuration change would allow the ISDN circuit to disconnect during any attempts to ping, while otherwise functioning properly?
change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles
remove the dialer list statement from the configuration
change the dialer list to exclude ICMP as interesting
disable inverse ARP

16. Below is a list of DDR steps. Which of the following identifies the proper order of DDR?
1 - dial number is looked up
2 - interesting traffic triggers DDR
3 - route to destination is determined
4 - call is made

1,2,3,4
1,3,2,4
2,3,1,4
2,1,3,4
3,2,1,4
3,1,2,4

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ccna 4 final exam version 1 part 3

37. Refer to the exhibit. The SSH connections between the remote user and the server are failing. The correct configuration of NAT has been verified. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
SSH is unable to pass through NAT.
There are incorrect access control list entries.
The access list has the incorrect port number for SSH.
The ip helper command is required on S0/0/0 to allow inbound connections.

38. Refer to the exhibit. A technician issues the show interface s0/0/0 command on R1 while troubleshooting a network problem. What two conclusions can be determined by from the output shown? (Choose two.)
The bandwidth has been set to the value of a T1 line.
Encapsulation should of this inteface be changed to PPP.
There is no failure indicated in an OSI Layer 1 or Layer 2.
The physical connection between the two routers has failed.
The IP address of S0/0 is invalid, given the subnet mask being used.

39. Refer to the exhibit. A packet is being sent from Host A to Host B through the VPN tunnel between R1 and R3. When the packet first arrives at R3, what are the source and destination IP addresses of the packet?
Source 192.168.1.2 - Destination 192.168.4.2
Source 192.168.3.1 - Destination 192.168.3.2
Source 192.168.2.1 - Destination 192.168.3.2
Source 192.168.3.1 - Destination 192.168.4.2

40. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?
RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.
All interfaces have been configured with the incorrect IPv4 addresses.
RIPv1 or RIPv2 needs to be configured in addition to RIPng to successfully use IPv4.
When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are shut down in favor of the newer technology.

41. Which wireless solution can provide mobile users with non line-of-sight broadband Internet access at speeds comparable to DSL or cable?
Wi-Fi
WiMAX
satellite
Metro Ethernet

42. A network administrator added two switches and a new VLAN over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?
Perform a baseline test and compare the current values to values that were obtained in previous weeks.
Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages is improved.
Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded from previous weeks.
Performance on the intranet can be determined by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.

43. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is adding R1 to an existing network. As a part of the corporate IT procedures, the administrator attempts to back up the router Cisco IOS software of R1 and receives the output shown. The network administrator then attempts unsuccessfully to ping the TFTP server from the console session. What should be done next to isolate this problem?
From R2, validate that interface Fa0/0 is operational.
From the TFTP server, verify that the software on the TFTP server is operational.
From the TFTP server, confirm there is enough room on the TFTP server for the Cisco IOS software.
From the console session, make sure that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides.

44. What functionality do access control lists provide when implementing dynamic NAT on a Cisco router?
defines which addresses can be translated
defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
defines which addresses can be accessed from the inside network

45. A network administrator is working with an applications team to fix a problem that a server based application is having with response time. The administrator has examined the network portions of the data path and identified several possible problem areas. The applications team has simultaneously identified potential issues with the current release of software. The network administrator begins addressing the network issues while the applications team implements software patches. Which statement applies to this situation?
Changes to the network will reveal problems that are caused by the new patches.
Scheduling will be more difficult if the network and software teams work independently.
It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.
Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation.

46. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT overload for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. Host A has sent a packet to the web server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from the web server?
10.1.1.2:1234
172.30.20.1:1234
172.30.20.1:3333
192.168.1.2:80

47. Which three guidelines would help contribute to creating a strong password policy? (Choose three.)
Once a good password is created, do not change it.
Deliberately misspell words when creating passwords.
Create passwords that are at least 8 characters in length.
Use combinations of upper case, lower case, and special characters.
Write passwords in locations that can be easily retrieved to avoid being locked out.
Use long words found in the dictionary to make passwords that are easy to remember.

48. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 172.16.4.1 172.16.4.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?
Traffic that is destined for 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5 will be dropped by the router.
Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.
The DHCP server function of the router will not issue the addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.
The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.

49. Which two statements are true about IPv6? (Choose two.)
Security options are build into IPv6.
IPv6 addresses require less router overhead to process.
IPv6 can only be configured on an interface that does not have IPv4 on it.
There is no way to translate between IPv4 addresses and IPv6 addresses.
When enabled on a router, IPv6 can automatically configure link-local IPv6 addresses on all interfaces.

50. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration?
The serial interfaces are in different subnets.
The RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.
The RIPng network command is not configured.
The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2.

51. At what physical location does the responsibilty for a WAN connection change from the user to the service provider?
demilitarized zone (DMZ)
demarcation point
local loop
cloud

52. Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from this DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows "DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.1.1". What is the problem?
The 192.168.1.1 address has not been excluded from the DHCP pool.
The pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is incorrect.
The default router for the 192Network pool is incorrect.
The 192.168.1.1 address is already configured on Fa0/0.

53. Which three functions are provided by the Local Management Interface used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose three.)
exchange information about the status of virtual circuits.
map DLCIs to network addresses.
provide flow control.
provide error notification.
provide congestion notification.
send keepalive packets to verify operation of the PVC.

54. Which three items are LCP options that can be configured for PPP? (Choose three.)
CHAP
Stacker
IPCP
CDPCP
Multilink

55. What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.)
checksum
digital certificates
encapsulation
encryption

Read More......

ccna 4 final exam version 1 part 2

19. What three statements describe the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
A modem terminates a digital local loop.
A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
A modem terminates an analog local loop.
A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
A router is commonly considered a DCE device.

20. A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which suggestion should the administrator provide?
Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the core layer.
ACLs applied to outbound interfaces are the most efficient.
Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a Cisco router. Branch B has a non-Cisco router set for IETF encapsulation. After the commands shown are entered, R2 and R3 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R3 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?
The PVC to R3 must be point-to-point.
LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.
The ietf parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 203 command.
The PVCs at R2 use different encapsulation types. A single port can only support one encapsulation type.

22. Which statement is true regarding wildcard masks?
The wildcard mask and subnet mask perform the same function.
The wildcard mask is always the inverse of the subnet mask.
A "0" in the wildcard mask identifies IP address bits that must be checked.
A "1" in the wildcard mask identifies a network or subnet bit.

23. Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the DC office of ABC Company to the Orlando office?
MAC address of the Orlando router
MAC address of the DC router
192.168.1.25
192.168.1.26
DLCI 100
DLCI 200

24. A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site with four remote sites. What advantage would dedicated leased lines provide to the customer compared to a shared Frame Relay solution?
lower cost
lower latency and jitter
variable bandwidth capacity
fewer physical router interfaces

25. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 do not receive RIP routing updates. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be enabled on router R2 to remedy the problem?
proxy ARP
CDP updates
SNMP services
RIP authentication

26. What are the symptoms when the s0/0/0 interface on a router is attached to an operational CSU/DSU that is generating a clock signal, but the far end router on the point-to-point link has not been activated?
show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.
show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.
show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.
show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.

27. Which statement about a VPN is true?
VPN link establishment and maintenance is provided by LCP.
DLCI addresses are used to identify each end of the VPN tunnel.
VPNs use virtual Layer 3 connections that are routed through the Internet.
Only IP packets can be encapsulated by a VPN for tunneling through the Internet.

28. Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router R3 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks?
Apply the ACL in the inbound direction.
Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL.
Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 192.168.10.10 any eq telnet .

29. Refer to the exhibit. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands shown when an ACL called Managers already exists on the router?
The commands overwrite the existing Managers ACL.
The commands are added at the end of the existing Managers ACL.
The network administrator receives an error stating that the ACL already exists.
The commands will create a duplicate Managers ACL containing only the new commands being entered.

30. Which three statements accurately describe a security policy? (Choose three.)
It creates a basis for legal action if necessary.
It defines a process for managing security violations.
It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
The remote access policy is a component of the security policy that governs acceptable use of e-mail systems.
It is kept private from users to prevent the possibility of circumventing security measures.
It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.

31. Refer to the exhibit. The link between the CTRL and BR_1 routers is configured as shown in the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session?
The clock rate must be 56000.
The usernames are misconfigured.
The IP addresses are on different subnets.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers.
Interface serial 0/0/0 on CTRL must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on BR_1.

32. What effect would the Router1(config-ext-nacl)# permit tcp 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www command have when implemented inbound on the f0/0 interface?
All TCP traffic is permitted, and all other traffic is denied.
The command is rejected by the router because it is incomplete.
All traffic from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted anywhere on any port.
Traffic originating from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted to all TCP port 80 destinations.

33. What can a network administrator do to recover from a lost router password?
use the copy tftp: flash: command.
boot the router to bootROM mode and enter the b command to load the IOS manually.
telnet from another router and issue the show running-config command to view the password.
boot the router to ROM monitor mode and configure the router to ignore the startup configuration when it initializes.

34. A router in a Frame Relay network needs to forward a message received from a host. What two methods does the router use to identify the correct VC to forward the message? (Choose two.)
The router forwards the frame to all ports in the network and learns the address from the reply frame.
The destination host IP address is embedded in the DLCI.
The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.
A table of static mappings can be searched.
The router broadcasts a request for the required IP address.

35. Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interface commands, at which OSI layer is a fault indicated?
application
transport
network
data link
physical

36. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list to prohibit traffic from the 192.168.1.0/24 network from reaching the 192.168.2.0/24 network while still permitting Internet access for all networks. On which router interface and in which direction should it be applied?
interface fa0/0/0, inbound
interface fa0/0/0, outbound
interface fa0/0/1, inbound
interface fa0/0/1, outbound

Read More......

Minggu, 22 Februari 2009

ccna 4 final exam version 1 part 1

1. A technician has been asked to run Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on the router of a customer. What will be the result of this process?
Traffic is only forwarded from SDM-trusted Cisco routers.
Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM.
The router is tested for potential security problems and any necessary changes are made.
All traffic entering the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.

2. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?
The username and password are not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.
The vtys are not configured correctly.

3. Refer to the exhibit. How is the TCP/IP configuration information specified by the default-router and dns-server commands made available?
The TCP/IP information is forwarded to a 10.0.1.3 to be supplied to DHCP clients.
The TCP/IP information is used by DHCP clients that are configured to request a configuration from R1.
The TCP/IP information is supplied to any DHCP client on the network connected to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface of R1.
The TCP/IP information is applied to each packet that enters R1 through the FastEthernet 0/0 interface that are hosts on the 10.0.1.0 /24 network except packets from addresses 10.0.1.2, 10.0.1.16, and 10.0.1.254.

4. What is a major characteristic of a worm?
malicious software that copies itself into other executable programs
tricks users into running the infected software
a set of computer instructions that lies dormant until triggered by a specific event
exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network

5. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the exhibited output of the debug ip nat command?
The 10.1.1.225 host is exchanging packets with the 192.168.0.10 host.
The native 10.1.200.254 address is being translated to 192.168.0.10.
The 192.168.0.0/24 network is the inside network.
Port address translation is in effect.

6. A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer rates between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why Company A reports higher download speeds than Company B?
Company B has a higher volume of POTS voice traffic than Company A.
Company B shares the conection to the DSLAM with more clients than Company A.
Company A only uses microfilters on branch locations.
Company A is closer to the service provider.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request entering interface s0/0/0, destined for an FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5?
It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 201 permit any any statement and allows the packet into the router.
It reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no access-list 101 permit any any statement.
It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 statement, ignores the remaining statements in ACL 101, and allows the packet into the router.
It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 201 deny icmp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any statement, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then drops the packet.

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the output shown? (Choose two.)
This network is experiencing congestion.
The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation.
Data is not flowing in this network.
The network is discarding eligible packets.
The DLCI is globally significant.

9. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?
Configure DHCP and static NAT.
Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.
Configure static NAT for all ten users.
Configure dynamic NAT with overload.

10. Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices?
a new WAN service supporting only IPv6
NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address
a manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2
static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 address and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses

11. Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology?
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2

HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2

HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2

HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2

12. An established company has recently transitioned from outsourced LAN support to a completely in-house staff. The outsourcing company is no longer in business, so no records are available. There are many user complaints about application speed and availability. What two considerations apply to this situation? (Choose two.)
A network utilization baseline should quickly reveal application availability.
A period of 24 to 48 hours should provide a sufficient baseline to track normal network activity.
It is easier to start with monitoring all available data inputs on application servers, and then fine-tune to fewer variables along the way.
The initial baseline results have little relevance to current values after the network has been modified or grown in usage.
When it is practical, network administrators should attempt to automate the collection of performance data and stay away from manual collection.
Creating a network baseline data helps determine device thresholds for alerting.

13. Which combination of Layer 2 protocol and authentication should be used to establish a link without sending authentication information in plain text between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router?
PPP with PAP
PPP with CHAP
HDLC with PAP
HDLC with CHAP

14. An administrator is unable to receive e-mail. While troubleshooting the problem, the administrator is able to ping the local mail server IP address successfully from a remote network and can successfully resolve the mail server name to an IP address via the use of the nslookup command. At what OSI layer is the problem most likely to be found?
physical layer
data link layer
network layer
application layer

15. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, what are two instances when a static Frame Relay map should be used? (Choose two.)
when the remote router is a non-Cisco router
when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP
when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier
when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled
when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used

16. Which three statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose three.)
Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.
One access list per port per protocol per direction is permitted.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.
There is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.
Statements are processed sequentially from top to bottom until a match is found.
The inbound keyword refers to traffic entering the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.

17. Which technology would provide the highest bandwidth connections between company sites at the lowest cost?
broadband Internet site-to-site VPN connections
satellite based network connections
dedicated point-to-point circuits
Frame Relay PVCs

18. Refer to the exhibit. This serial interface is not functioning correctly. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely cause?
improper LMI type
interface reset
PPP negotiation failure
unplugged cable

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Senin, 09 Februari 2009

ccna 3 final exam version 2 part 3

34. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, synchronizes VLAN information?
Disable VTP pruning on SW2.
Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.
Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password.
Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.

35. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured R1 and S1 as displayed. However, PC1 is unable to access PC2. What is the likely problem?
No routing protocol is configured on R1.
The Fa0/1 port of S1 is not a trunk port.
The default gateway address is not set on S1.
Only one physical link between S1 and R1 is configured for inter-VLAN routing.

36. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts B and C attempt to transmit a frame at the same time, but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
all hosts that are shown
only hosts B and C
only hosts A, B, and C
only hosts A, B, C, and D
only hosts A, D, E, and F
only hosts D, E, and F

37. The network administrator wants to configure a switch to pass VLAN update information to other switches in the domain but not update own local VLAN database. Which two steps should the administrator perform to achieve this? (Choose two.)
Reset the VTP counters.
Configure VTP version 1 on the switch.
Configure the VTP mode of the switch to transparent.
Verify that the switch has a higher configuration revision number.
Configure the switch with the same VTP domain name as other switches in the network.

38. Refer to the exhibit. RTB is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. RTB can ping computer A but cannot ping computer a possible cause of this failure?
Port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
RTB does not have an active routing protocol.
The IP address of computer B is in the wrong logical network.
Router interface Fa0/1 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.

39. Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of issuing these commands?
The enable password will be set.
The password will be set for the first Telnet connection.
The password will be set for the console connection.
The password will be set for the auxiliary connection.

40. In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it does not allow for the creation of local VLANs but it does accept VLAN updates from switches in the same domain?
client
root
server
transparent

41. Refer to the exhibit. What is true of the configuration of switch S1?
Only VLAN 99 will be allowed to use the trunk links.
Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 are configured with a standard trunking protocol.
Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 should be configured as access ports to allow data from multiple VLANs to access S1.
The switch negotiated trunk links for interfaces Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 because all connected interfaces have been configured with the switchport mode dynamic auto command.

42. Refer to the exhibit. SW1 has recently been installed to replace a hub. Hosts 1 and 4 both transmit data at the same time. How will event be handled by the network devices? (Choose two.)
When a collision occurs, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
Because hosts 1 and 4 connect to a switch, no collision will occur.
Based on information that is found in the switch MAC address table, the switch will forward the data to the appropriate ports.
Hosts 2 and 3 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
To prevent future collisions, the switch will block the ports that are connected to host 2, host 3, and host 4 for a set time period.

43. Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)
It is only used at Layer 2.
It is configured on routers.
It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies.
It limits the number of valid MAC addresses allowed on a port.
It allows VLAN information to propagate to other switches in the network.

44. Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host that is connected to switch X in VLAN 10 to communicate with a host that is connected switch Y in VLAN 10?
QoS
routing
trunking
VPN
VoIP
subinterfaces

45. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are configured for VTP as shown. Which two statements correctly describe the operation of these switches? (Choose two.)
A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.
An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2.
An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.

46. Refer to the exhibit. Which password allows the administrator to enter the privileged exec mode?
cisco1
cisco2
cisco3
cisco

47. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configures both switches as displayed. However, host C is unable host D and host E is unable to ping host F. What action should the administrator take to enable this communication?
Include a router in the topology.
Associate hosts A and B with VLAN 10 instead of VLAN 1.
Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
Configure one trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode.
Add the switchport nonegotiate command to the configuration of S2.

48. Refer to the exhibit. SW1 is a 2960 switch with default values assigned. Which two statements are true about what cost value of 38 represents for SW1? (Choose two.)
SW1 connects via two FastEthernet links to reach the root switch.
The cost represents the numeric value for the fastest path from SW1 to the root switch.
A cost of 38 is the value that is being advertised out port 26 on the upstream switch, which is closer to the root switch.
SW1 adds the cost of a FastEthernet link to 38 to determine the total cost that is required to reach the root switch.
The root switch is advertising a cost of 38, which is lower than any other switch that participates in the VLAN spanning-tree domain.
SW1 connects via a FastEthernet link to an upstream switch that in turn is directly connected to the root switch Gigabit Ethernet link.

49. What are two benefits of a hierarchical network model over a flat network design? (Choose two.)
reduced cost of equipment
increased network availability
elimination of equipment downtime
reduced size of the physical network layout
simplification of management and troubleshooting
elimination of the need for Layer 3 functionality

50. Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. Which VLAN(s) will be allowed on the SW2 by SW4?
VLAN 20
VLAN 10 and VLAN 30
VLAN 10, VLAN 20, and VLAN 30
VLAN 20 and VLANs 1002 through 1005

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ccna 3 final exam version 2 part 2

18. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to remove the east-hosts VLAN and use the switch port from VLAN in one of the existing VLANs. Which two sets of commands should be used when completely removing VLAN from S1-Central while leaving the switch and all its interfaces operational? (Choose two.)

S1-Central> enable
S1-Central# reload

S1-Central> enable
S1-Central# erase flash:

S1-Central> enable
S1-Central# delete flash:vlan.dat

S1-Central> enable
S1-Central# configure terminal

S1-Central(config)# no vlan 2


S1-Central> enable

S1-Central# configure terminal

S1-Central(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/1
S1-Central(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3


19. Which statement correctly describes a function of a Layer 2 switch?
It routes packets between different LAN segments.
It uses the destination MAC address to selectively forward a frame.
It performs switching and filtering based on the destination network layer address.
It drops a frame whose destination MAC address is not in the MAC address table.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What is the last device to receive the collision?
hub HB1
switch SW1
router R1
switch SW2
router R2
switch SW4

21. Refer to the exhibit. What does STATIC indicate in the output that is shown?
Switch port Fa0/24 can only work in VLAN 99.
VLAN 99 was manually added to the VLAN database.
MAC address 0001.637b.b267 was learned from the source address of a frame that was received on switch Fa0/24.
MAC address 0001.637b.b267 was manually associated with the switch port Fa0/24.

22. Which combination is required to establish a connection to initially configure the Linksys WRT300N wireless accessdevice?
a computer with a console connection to the WRT300N
a computer with a wireless connection to the WRT300N
a computer with an AUX port connection to the WRT300N
a computer configured in the same IP subnet as the WRT300N and a direct cable connection to it

23. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree algorithm?
It propagates VLAN configurations to other switches.
It restricts broadcast packets to a single VLAN.
It segments a network into multiple broadcast domains.
It prevents loops in a switched network with redundant paths.

24. Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly describe the router configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)
An IEEE standard trunking protocol is in use.
Interface Fa0/1 has been configured with subinterfaces.
The shutdown command has been applied to interface Fa0/1.
Interface Fa0/1.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.
The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.
An IP address should be applied to interface Fa0/1 for routing to occur.

25. Refer to the exhibit. Computer D sends a broadcast message. Which devices will process the broadcast message?
computer E
computer D and computer E
computer D, computer E, and Router1
computer B and computer E
computer B, computer E, and Router1
computer C, computer D, and computer E
computer C, computer D, computer E, and Router1
computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E, and Router1

26. Refer to the graphic. In the Wireless menu option of a Linksys integrated router, what does the Network Mode option Mixed mean?
The router supports encryption and authentication.
The router supports both wired and wireless connections.
The router supports 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n devices.
The router supports connectivity through infrared and radio frequencies.

27. Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, PC1 and PC2 can ping default gateways, but not each other. The network administrator enters the show interfaces trunk command and the results that are shown. What is the likely problem?
The router has not been configured with a routing protocol.
The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
The trunk has not been established because the switch port has not been configured for trunking.
The switch, the router, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for the Dynamic Trunking Protocol to establish a trunk.

28. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to allow both SSH and Telnet connections to Switch1. However, SSH connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
The RSA key has been removed.
SSH has been configured on the wrong line.
The transport input command is applied incorrectly.
The domain name has been configured in the wrong configuration mode.

29. Refer to the exhibit. What does “LEARNING” mean as it relates to the Spanning Tree Protocol?
The switch is sending and receiving data frames.
The switch is not receiving BPDUs, but is sending and receiving data.
The switch is participating in the election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.

30. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator documented the output of a CAM table from an Ethernet switch as shown. What action the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?
discard the frame
forward the frame out port 2
forward the frame out port 3
forward the frame out all ports
forward the frame out all ports except port 3
add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to port 2 in the forwarding table

31. Refer to the exhibit. What happens when a frame from a source MAC address different from 00a8.d2e4.ba27 reaches switch 0/5?
The frame is dropped.
The port is shut down.
An error message is displayed.
FastEthernet port 0/5 will show an err-disabled message.

32. What are three features of router-on-a-stick, inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)
requires the use of VTP
requires the use of subinterfaces
reduces the number of broadcast domains
affects performance when many VLANs are used
requires an access link between the router and at least one switch
is more cost effective than other approaches to inter-VLAN routing
dictates that at least two switch ports be used between the router and the switch

33. Which two statements about a service set identifier (SSID) are true? (Choose two.)
provides strong wireless security
responsible for determining the signal strength
tells a wireless device to which WLAN it belongs
used to encrypt data sent across the wireless network
all wireless devices on the same WLAN must have the same SSID

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